@Exphleb:
Piss is sterile coming out of the body. However, virii can pass from blood to urine.
Can you provide documentation that this is also the case with HIV? This would be the first that I've ever heard of the potential for the presence of HIV in urine. Also, this begs the question, if urine is sterile, how can it be contaminated with a virus? Wouldn't this mean that it's not sterile? I just don't understand how there can be such an obvious contradiction. As far as I'm aware, there is absolutely NO evidence that proves that this is possible with HIV. By the same token, there is also no evidence that suggests or otherwise proves that HIV is or is not present within ejaculative fluid or pre-cum either… That being said, there is newer documentation that has been made available that seems to suggest (in theory anyway) that with a suppressed viral load, the only place in which to really find the virus within the human body is within the bone marrow. This is why there are a few bizarre and odd-ball cases where claims have been made that HIV treatment medications have been able to remove the virus from the system if administered early enough. Sadly though, there aren't exactly many people jumping at the chance to experiment with this alleged cure theory for obvious ethical reasons.
@Exphleb:
If someone tests negative for HIV, good chance they're clean.
I would beg to differ on this point. Given the reality of the approximately 2 week window (with some tests that can take up to 3 months, or in VERY rare cases, up to 6 months), it is quite possible that someone who sleeps around on a regular basis can test "clean", and then contract HIV the day after the blood was drawn. These are reasons why I say that HIV testing alone is not necessarily all that it's cracked up to be. There are other variables in the equation to take into account, such as whether or not the person is a complete tramp and sleeps around on the daily.
@Exphleb:
Remember, HIV can take 3 months before detection using older systems. Modern tests can get an accurate reading within 24-48 hours after contact.
Actually, there's a slight flaw to that statement. By any government approved tests for the masses, the point of seroconversion must occur before the test will yield any result. The immune system must get overwhelmed with the virus as to begin creating the anti-body and protein necessary. This process generally occurs within about 2 weeks. Perhaps with more sophisticated testing it may be possible to come to a determination about whether or not the virus is present, however any of the tests that are available to the masses do not actually detect the actual virus itself… They only detect the "by-products" for lack of a better term. This is largely due to the fact that Public Health (both in Canada & the USA) use the MEIA & Western Blot for their testing methods, which yield a "non-reactive" result if this process has not yet occurred. If there are such tests that can verify this within 24 - 48 hours, this begs the obvious question of why are these tests not the standard norm, instead of the current system that is used in the masses?
@Exphleb:
The facts have changed dramatically; gays have the lowest percentage of the population who are infected. This number continues to decrease.
Actually, this statement is a little misleading. As far back as 2003, the number of heterosexual women with HIV on a GLOBAL scale exceeded that of gay men. That being said however, within North America, the proportions are actually quite different than looking at stats as a whole on a global scale. According to the CDC, within North America, the number of gay men infected with HIV is still substantially higher than that of any other group.